E20-597 EMC exam dumps

10. What type of approach is used to deploy, operate, and optimize Cisco solutions?
Select the best response.
A. Lifecycle advantages
B. Lifecycle services
C. Lifestyle services
D. Lifestyle advantages
E. Lifetime advantage
Answer: B
11. On what type of network does the Cisco Unified Communication system reside?
Select the best response.
A. Independent voice, video, and data networks
B. Voice networks only
C. A single, joined voice, video, and data network
D. Data networks only
E. Wireless networks only

Answer: C
12. What are the three commonly recognized top-level business drivers for data centers? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Protecting the business from information outages
B. A need to decentralize IT assets
C. Increasing the rate of adoption of new, nonstandardized technologies
D. Optimizing the efficiency with which IT operates
E. An increased need for specialized IT silos
F. Growing IT systems
Answer: ADF
13. Which type of deployment utilizes ISRs with Cisco IOS Security feature sets to provide an ideal,
low-cost, yet capable and powerful platform?
Select the best response.
A. Small deployments
B. Large deployments
C. Medium deployments
D. Commercial deployments
E. Financial deployments
Answer: A
14. Which stage of Cisco Lifecycle Services comprises services that ensure the design and deployment of
the desired network functionality?
Select the best response.
A. Prepare
B. Plan
C. Design
D. Implement
E. Operate
Answer: D
15. Which three of the following are benefits of Cisco TAC? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Direct or indirect access to the global Cisco TAC organization
B. The ability to access teams of experts
C. Onsite engineering support
D. Minimizes risks associated with network downtime
E. Upgrades from base Cisco IOS Software to advanced feature set Cisco IOS Software
F. Project management and planning support
Answer: ABD

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7. Which port would you use to Telnet directly into the CLARiiON?
A. Comm Port RS-232
B. Management LAN
C. Service LAN
D. SPS Serial Port RS-232
Answer: A
8. According to EMC best practice, what is the proper sequence for powering up a CLARiiON array?
A. Power on SP A and then power on SP B
B. Power on the master switch and then power on each SP
C. Power on the master switch; both SPs will power on automatically
D. Turn on the power switch for each SPS and then power on the master switch
Answer: D
9. What is the first thing you need to know when starting the Initialization Utility?
A. Domain that the array is apart of
B. IP address of Management Port
C. Serial number of the array
D. Version of FLARE on the array
Answer: C
10. What is the correct command to add user security?
A. naviseccli -AddUserSecurity -scope 0 -user -username -password mypass
B. naviseccli -AddUserSecurity -password mypass -scope 0 -user username
C. navicli -AddUserSecurity -scope 0 -user -username -password mypass
D. navicli -AddUserSecurity -password mypass -scope 0 -user -username
Answer: B
11. What is the correct command to delete user security?
A. navicli -RemoveUserSecurity -scope 0 -user -username -password mypass
B. navicli -RemoveUserSecurity -password mypass -scope 0 -user username
C. naviseccli -RemoveUserSecurity -scope 0 -user -username -password mpass
D. naviseccli -RemoveUserSecurity -password mypass -scope 0 -user -username
Answer: D
12. What is the function of IP address filtering?
A. Restricts access to iSCSI ports, EMCRemote, and communication between SPs.
B. Restricts access to Navisphere Service and Serial ports.
C. Restricts access to specific management clients.
D. Restricts access to the Loopback Address.
Answer: C
13. Which access will be restricted by using IP address filtering?

A. CIMON debug menu
B. CIMON debug
C. iSCSI ports
D. Navisphere Service
Answer: A
14. IP address filtering restricts access for Navisphere Manager, Navisphere Express, and Navisphere
Secure CLI. Which access does it allow?
A. Access to iSCSI ports, EMCRemote, and communication between SPs
B. HAVT Reports and CIMON Debug
C. Navisphere Management Ports and EMCRemote
D. Navisphere Service, serial ports, and Navisphere Management Ports
Answer: A

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1. Click the Exhibit button.
The attached diagram shows the front of a new CX700. One of the disks in the CX700 is highlighted.
Based on the standard cabling format, which disk is highlighted?

A. 1_1_6
B. 3_0_6
C. 3_0_7
D. 4_1_6
Answer: B
2. You have been asked to attend a presales
meeting with a client. During the meeting, the client begins
to ask questions about SAN switches. The client specifies that they want a SAN switch which can
associate “user friendly” names with WWPNs for zoning. Which SAN switch provides this functionality?
A. DS16B3
B. DS24B3
C. DS24M2
D. DS32M2
Answer: A
3. Your customer attached its host to a CLARiiON through an ED64M
switch. The host HBA is not logging
into the fabric. Assuming no hardware problems, good cables and a properly configured host, what is the
most likely problem?
A. FCAL
bit setting enabled
B. Switch port for host is disabled
C. Port speed on switch improperly set
D. UPM card in secure lockdown mode
Answer: B
4. After attaching a Solaris host to a CLARiiON using PowerPath, you wish to see the status and number
of the paths per device. What is the command?
A. powercf i
B. powermt config
C. powermt config dev=all

D. powermt display dev=all
Answer: D
5. A small business purchased an CX500 with a pair of DS24M
switches. The company did not purchase
Connectrix Manager. Which methods can be used to manage the switches?
A. Telnet, Web Tools
B. Telnet, Embedded Web Server
C. Embedded Web Server, Web Tools
D. DSM
Connect, Fabric/Device Manager
Answer: B
6. WS, Inc. plans to implement a firewall between the CLARiiONs and the management host in the data
center. Which ports must be opened in the firewall?
A. 80, 433, 2189, 2190
B. 80, 433, 2191, 2192
C. 80, 443, 6389, 6391
D. 80, 443, 6391, 6392
Answer: C

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1. Which network topology best describes how EMC Centera nodes are networked together?
A. Bus
B. Mesh
C. Ring
D. Star
Answer: D
2. How many leading bits are used to determine the class of an Internet address?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: C
3. In the OSI model, which layer would a router be defined in?
A. Data link
B. Network
C. Network interface
D. Transport
Answer: B
4. Which layer of the OSI model does FTP use?
A. Application
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
Answer: A
5. What are four layers in the ARPA (TCP/IP) architecture?
A. Application, session, transport, and physical
B. Application, transport, network, and network interface
C. Presentation, network, data link, and network interface
D. Presentation, transport, data link, and physical
Answer: B

6. Which port number is used to communicate to an SMTP server?
A. 20 or 21
B. 22
C. 25
D. 321
Answer: C
7. Which EMC Centera security model conforms to Securities and Exchange Comission regulations?
A. Basic
B. CE+
C. CPP
D. Governance Edition
Answer: B
8. Your customer wants to automatically archive files from his EMC Celerra to EMC Centera. Which
additional hardware is required?
A. CUA using CIFS
B. CUA using NFS
C. None. The Celerra API is integrated with EMC Centera
D. Rainfinity FMA
Answer: D
9. Which two objects are stored as a single BLOB?
A. Two documents containing the same data
B. Two JPG pictures written at the same time
C. Two MP3 songs of the same size
D. Two X-Rays with the same filename
Answer: A

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1. A customer is deploying a new Microsoft Exchange environment and has requested assistance with the
associated disk design. They are deploying Exchange for 850 users with an average of 3 I/Os per user.
They expect a 60% read and 40% write distribution.
The customer would like to know the number of disks required for both RAID 5 and RAID 1/0 DMX
configurations with 15k rpm drives. How many disks are required for each configuration type?
A. RAID 5 28 and RAID 1/0 18
B. RAID 5 31 and RAID 1/0 20
C. RAID 5 38 and RAID 1/0 24
D. RAID 5 43 and RAID 1/0 28
Answer: A
2. A customer plans to create two regional offices that are between 800 and 2,000 km away from their
main data center. Each regional office will have a data center that will serve four to six branch offices
between 30 and 50 km away.
At the close of business each evening the customer will shut down the application and transmit changes
to each regional office. The amount of new information sent from the head office each night will vary from
0.5 and 1.5 GB. Later each night, an application at the regional offices will read the data from the head
office and generate approximately 50 MB of new rate information appropriate for its branch offices.
What is the most cost-effective EMC solution?
A. 1. Configure CLARiiON arrays in each office.
2. Use MirrorView/A and T3 networks for all data transfers.
B. 1. Configure Symmetrix arrays in the head office and CLARiiONs in the regional offices.
2. Use OC-3 networks to transmit the same master copy of data from the head office to the regional
offices using Open Replicator.
3. At the regional offices, create a snap of the data received and transmit the changes to the branch
offices using SAN Copy.
C. 1. Configure Symmetrix arrays at all the main data centers and CLARiiONs at the regional and branch
offices.
2. Use OC-3 network links between the main data centers.
3. Use DS-3 between the regional and branch offices.
4. Use SRDF/DM for data transfer in each case.
D. 1. Configure Symmetrix arrays at the head office and regional offices.
2. Configure CLARiiONs at the branch offices.
3. Use SRDF/DM and T1 network links between the head office and regional offices.
4. Use Open Replicator incremental offline push to distribute rate information to the branch offices
using T1 network links.
Answer: D
3. A customer decided to consolidate their storage onto a Symmetrix. They have a mix of Windows and
UNIX servers and want one copy of data for creating backups each night. They also want another copy to
be made during the day. This second copy will be a standby to perform a fast recovery in the event of data
corruption.
The initial survey of the customer environment shows that the read/write ratio of their application is 1. 2

during the day and 5. 1 at night. The application appears to be highly sensitive to disk response times
during the day.
Which initial solution should be considered?
A. TimeFinder/Clones for the standby copy and TimeFinder/Mirror BCVs for backups at night
B. TimeFinder/Snap for the standby copy and TimeFinder/Clone for backups at night
C. TimeFinder/Snap for the standby copy and TimeFinder/Mirror BCVs for backups at night
D. TimeFinder/Mirror BCVs for the standby copy and TimeFinder/Snaps for backups at night
Answer: D

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Testpassport Practice Exams for Technology Architect Solutions Design E20-322 are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy, using only certified subject matter experts and published authors for development.

1. A customer is deploying a new Microsoft Exchange environment and has requested assistance with the
associated disk design. They are deploying Exchange for 850 users with an average of 3 I/Os per user.
They expect a 60% read and 40% write distribution.
The customer would like to know the number of disks required for both RAID 5 and RAID 1/0 DMX
configurations with 15k rpm drives. How many disks are required for each configuration type?
A. RAID 5 28 and RAID 1/0 18
B. RAID 5 31 and RAID 1/0 20
C. RAID 5 38 and RAID 1/0 24
D. RAID 5 43 and RAID 1/0 28
Answer: A
2. A customer plans to create two regional offices that are between 800 and 2,000 km away from their
main data center. Each regional office will have a data center that will serve four to six branch offices
between 30 and 50 km away.
At the close of business each evening the customer will shut down the application and transmit changes
to each regional office. The amount of new information sent from the head office each night will vary from
0.5 and 1.5 GB. Later each night, an application at the regional offices will read the data from the head
office and generate approximately 50 MB of new rate information appropriate for its branch offices.
What is the most cost-effective EMC solution?
A. 1. Configure CLARiiON arrays in each office.
2. Use MirrorView/A and T3 networks for all data transfers.
B. 1. Configure Symmetrix arrays in the head office and CLARiiONs in the regional offices.
2. Use OC-3 networks to transmit the same master copy of data from the head office to the regional
offices using Open Replicator.
3. At the regional offices, create a snap of the data received and transmit the changes to the branch
offices using SAN Copy.
C. 1. Configure Symmetrix arrays at all the main data centers and CLARiiONs at the regional and branch
offices.
2. Use OC-3 network links between the main data centers.
3. Use DS-3 between the regional and branch offices.
4. Use SRDF/DM for data transfer in each case.
D. 1. Configure Symmetrix arrays at the head office and regional offices.
2. Configure CLARiiONs at the branch offices.
3. Use SRDF/DM and T1 network links between the head office and regional offices.
4. Use Open Replicator incremental offline push to distribute rate information to the branch offices
using T1 network links.
Answer: D

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8. You are designing a backup solution for an EMC NetWorker customer who wants to backup while 

restoring from the same device. Which option should be used? 

A.Advanced file type device 

B.File type device 

C.Save set cloning 

D.Save set staging 

Answer: A 

9. A customer needs to configure backup for a large database (~ 1 TB) with EMC NetWorker Module for 

Oracle. Which solution will minimize performance degradation on the database server? 

A.Backup-to-tape 

B.Backup-to-disk 

C.Backup-to-virtual tape library 

D.Backup with split-mirror function 

Answer: D 

10. A customer has the following backup requirements: 

Must meet short backup window 

Must meet low RTO 

Must backup many highly transactional Oracle databases 

Must eliminate tape 

The customer has two data center sites with ample bandwidth between them but needs to limit utilization 

as much as possible. Which solution best addresses the customer’s requirements? 

A.A pair of EMC DL3D 3000 at two different sites with replication implemented between them

B.A pair of EMC DL4000 series at two different sites with replication implemented between them 

C.A pair of EMC DL4000 series with 3D4000 at two different sites with replication implemented between 

them 

D.A pair of EMC DL4000 series with 3D4000 at two different sites with MirrorView implemented between 

them 

Answer: C 

11. What is an advantage of implementing Celerra LAN backup-to-disk? 

A.Better compression and encryption algorithms 

B.Improves restore performance due to the RAID 1/0 protection schema of the target volumes 

C.Minimizes storage administration by automatic creation of optimal target file systems 

D.Provides a dedicated target array without the impact of other application data storage 

Answer: C 

12. Which performs the de-duplication process in a DL3D 1500 backup environment? 

A.Back end CLARiiON 

B.Backup Client 

C.Engine 

D.Storage Node 

Answer: C

Backup and Recovery Specialist Exam(E20-590) belongs to one of the Legato Cert certified test, if needs to obtain the Legato Cert certificate, you also need to participate in other related test, the details you may visit the Legato Cert certified topic, in there, you will see all related Legato Cert certified subject of examination.

5. Which management task eliminates single points of failure in a data center?

A. Availability

B. Capacity

C. Performance

D. Security

Answer: B

6. What is a server capacity management task?

A. Establishing user quotas

B. Installing multi-path software

C. Maintaining user logins

D. Monitoring faults and events

Answer: C

7. A  LUN  is  created  from  three  disks  using  one  partition from  each  of  the  disks. When  this  LUN  is

presented to the host, how does the host view the LUN?

A. As three separate partitions

B. As a striped partition

C. As a concatenated partition

D. As a single disk

Answer: C

8. What is the failure that RAID technology guards against?

A. Disk failure

B. Host Bus Adapter failures

C. Host failures

D. Switch failure

Answer: C

9. What is the name of the drive sub-assembly which contains the platters and read/write heads?

A. ATA

B. SATA

C. HDA

D. IDE

Answer: B

10. In an intelligent disk system, what is the role of the back-end?

A. To communicate between Tag RAM and data store

B. To communicate between a host and the storage system

C. To move data between a host and the array cache

D. To move data between an array cache and the disks

Answer: C

11. Which EMC product family allows for the configuration and management of  Fibre Channel switched

fabrics?

A. Celerra

B. Centera

C. CLARiiON

D. Connectrix

Answer: A
 

Storage Technology Foundations(E20-001) belongs to one of the Legato Cert certified test, if needs to obtain the Legato Cert certificate, you also need to participate in other related test, the details you may visit the Legato Cert certified topic, in there, you will see all related Legato Cert certified subject of examination.

Backup & Recovery Implementation Exam(E20-593) belongs to one of the Technology Foundations certified test, if needs to obtain the Technology Foundations certificate, you also need to participate in other related test, the details you may visit the Technology Foundations certified topic, in there, you will see all related Technology Foundations certified subject of examination.